Re^2: "x ? y : z" notation

$x == 1 ? print "x was '1'" : print "x was something else";

While that's technically correct it doesn't take advantage of the fact that the ternary operator has a return value; whatever expression is evaluate after the ?.

See another adaptation that takes advantage of this feature.

print( "x was " . $x == 1 ? "'1'" : "someting else" );
[download]

Dave

Comment on Re^2: "x ? y : z" notation Select or Download Code

Replies are listed 'Best First'.
Re^3: "x ? y : z" notation by rovf (Priest) on Mar 26, 2009 at 09:09 UTC
take advantage of the fact that the ternary operator has a return value How true; Perl is a bit unorthogonal in this respect, in that there is (at least) one case where you can achieve this effect with a plain 'if': `sub lessthan { if($_[0] < $_[1]) {1} else {0} }` [download] Some languages (old examples: Algol60 and Algol68) are more regular in this respect... BTW, does someone know by chance which was the first language which used ?: to represent "ternary if"? Of course you had this already in LISP or BCPL, but with a different syntax. The earliest occurance of ?: I know of, is in C, but I wouldn't be surprised if it was used in even older languages already. -- Ronald Fischer <ynnor@mm.st>	[reply] [d/l]
Re^4: "x ? y : z" notation by poolpi (Hermit) on Mar 26, 2009 at 10:31 UTC
Answer seems to be C Wikipedia says BCPL (1966 different syntax). Update: Ternary_operation ( 1958, ALGOL different syntax too) hth, PooLpi 'Ebry haffa hoe hab im tik a bush'. Jamaican proverb	[reply]


We don't bite newbies here... much
	PerlMonks