Well, may be... but your answer is false:).

Let's be precise: nowadays, your answer is right, but only since Gregorian reform, which has been take into account at different times in differents countries. Before that, and since 45BC, there was a leap year in every year divisible by 4 (NOTE: 45BC is year -44).

Even that isn't exatly true... At the beginning people did not understand what "once in 4 years" meant, and there was a period (between 45BC and 9BC) where there was a leap year every 3 years. Followed by a period (between 8BC and 8AD) where there was no leapyear at all.

See the Calendar FAQ .

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TheHobbit