in reply to Why doesn't % interpolate?
Historicly, BTW, note that the interpolation of scalars has been there since the beginning (I think), whereas interpolation of arrays is rather new (5.0 partialy, normalized somwhat in 5.6, thanks, toma).
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Re: Re: Why doesn't % interpolate?
by bart (Canon) on Apr 19, 2003 at 21:22 UTC |