The general answer to this is that you can't

What you can do is to hypothosise that the numbers have, for example a uniform distribution, then feed the answers you got in and work out how probable it is that you would get this set of numbers by chance (a significance test). Generally if the probability of getting the numbers by chance is less than 1% (or 0.1% if your fussy and 5% if you're not) then you have proved that the numbers don't have that distribution.

As has previously been noted it is very easy to get the maths wrong.

But as for the distribution, it is like science, proving that the distribution of a set of numbers is not something is often easy, you just need one counter example, but you can never prove what it is, the counter-example might be the next one.

In reply to Re: How do we find statistical distribution of a given set of numbers? by hawtin
in thread How do we find statistical distribution of a given set of numbers? by Sameet

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