Kind of off topic, but Russel's Paradox got me thinking...
Isn't Russel's "Paradox" really a proof that the "set of all sets that are not members of themselves" does not exist? If the
premise that "the set of all sets that are not members of themselves is R" yields a contradiction, then that means the premise was incorrect; the set is
not, in fact, "R". Since "R" was an arbitrary assignment, that indicates that the set simply doesn't exist. What would exist would be the set of "R excluding R".
Its a proof, not a paradox. He just didn't take the last step and declare "reductio ad absurdum".
Well, now that I've cleared up 105 years of mathematical uncertainty, I should really get back to work.
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