Not quite, IMHO.

Consider 2 bags with only 2 balls in each:

Ball 1 the same: 50%
Ball 2 the same (assuming ball 1 was the same): 100%

So, you have to take into account the reduced number of balls on the second pick:

Ball 1: 1/100 = 1%
Ball 2: 1/99 = 1.01%
Total odds: 0.0101%

Tom Melly, tom@tomandlu.co.uk

In reply to Re: Math help by Melly
in thread Math help by Anonymous Monk

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