And sorry too but I still don't understand why you still think the origin of the indo-european civilisation not being India but is geographically or otherwise Kurgish is a reasonable counter argument to the statement that English originated from Sanskrit - or what else is your argument then? That Sanskrit has been spoken in India since before English began is not in dispute by the way? Or is it?
I am not disputing your references, I am disputing what you understand by them.