I don't use MySQL (I'm a Pg fan) so there could be some way but, if so, it is not standard SQL

I think your approach is right (i.e. I don/t know a better way to do it) but I'm wondering about the correctness of the idea behind it: if your table2 has only the column property and it is automatically populated when you insert into table1, what is the need for a separate table?

Rule One: "Do not act incautiously when confronting a little bald wrinkly smiling man."

In reply to Re: SQL question: Insertion with FK constraint by psini
in thread SQL question: Insertion with FK constraint by lihao

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