I did read them, but apparently it didn't sink in at the time because I couldn't think of a situation where you wouldn't know your function names in advance. The only exception might be if you're taking user input and running the function asked for, which would be inherently unsafe I would think.

Still, valid point. ikegami's solution is obviously what the OP was looking for. I should stop posting after a hard coding session when my brain is already tired.


In reply to Re^3: How to map function name to coderef? by TJPride
in thread How to map function name to coderef? by Anonymous Monk

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