in reply to Re: Re^5: Get rid of the Indirect Syntax, please!
in thread On the Improvement of Exegesis 12
why would it be omittable in the single-argument (and possibly others) case, but not in all cases?
Again - I've only skimmed A12 so I am probably wrong :-) However, consider:
bar $foo, 1;
Does this mean:
($foo.bar), 1
or:
$foo.bar( 1 );
The colon disambiguates it:
bar $foo: 1 == $foo.bar( 1 ); bar $foo, 1 == ($foo.bar), 1;
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Re: Re^7: Get rid of the Indirect Syntax, please!
by dragonchild (Archbishop) on Apr 19, 2004 at 15:24 UTC | |
by kelan (Deacon) on Apr 19, 2004 at 16:32 UTC | |
by dragonchild (Archbishop) on Apr 19, 2004 at 16:58 UTC | |
by TimToady (Parson) on Apr 19, 2004 at 17:43 UTC | |
by dragonchild (Archbishop) on Apr 19, 2004 at 18:25 UTC |